Why did the Spanish crowns Bankruptcies in the 16th century not lead to revolution like those of French monarchy in late 18th century.

Read the Story

Show Top Comments

The spanish crowns bankruptcies did play a part in the eighty years war, which was a rebellion against the spanish crown, even though it was not in spain proper. Also, there are many differences as the system of government and the ruler of spain did not change because of bankruptcies, which didnt disrupt the status quo of european diplomacy nearly as much chaos as the french situation did.

avglifterhushie

One of the reasons I suspect is because of the opportunity of immigration. Many young Spaniards had the opportunity to escape into the new world and start a new life. This must have placated at least some of the people. I’m not sure how much possible this was in French colonial territories.

Minuteman60

I can’t comment on the situation in Spain and I’m not an expert on the French Revolution but for specific revolution risk factors France had a lot of resentment against the aristocracy and the church. France’s king was also especially inept, and there were food shortages, which is probably one of the WORST problems to have as a ruler who doesn’t want to get deposed. Bullshit tolerance declines sharply when are hungry. When you’re literally starving to death the “what do I have to lose?” consideration changes dramatically. Maybe most importantly, though, the Enlightenment happened, with empiricism, John Locke (“life, liberty and the pursuit of property”) and other liberal thinkers. Classical liberalism and Burkian conservarism were very different from what those words mean today. Liberalism was about the idea of individual rights being more important than societal ones, and those rights being inherent and God-given. It was one of the most significant political/philosophical shifts ever in Western culture. 16th century Spanish peasants would have believed the God chose the king (divine right), so questioning the king was the same as questioning God.

lurker_no_more90

Time frame is a major component, in the 16th century enlightenment thought hadn’t really coalesced yet where you could have thinks like the rights of man develop. Contrary to popular belief, revolutions aren’t purely economic. The initial driving factors are usually economic, but ideology plays a massive roll in how they end up developing.

DariusIV

A quick skip thru wikipedia and maybe I got a contributing factor if nothing else. Population. Apparently during louie xiv’s time which is like 1650-1750 (not really but its something like that) France’s population exploded. They had double the population of Spain and England combined. A big population is going to get stressed far harder, be harder to wind down, and be far more diffucult to rein in/not be overwhelmed by I’d imagine. Also maybe the church, I cant think of a country more prone to fanatical oppressive religiosity at that time. Not a historian just a schmuck so take with 2 cents.

Good_Sportsman